<logic> The paradox that results from the L"wenheim-Skolem theorem (LST). Does LST mean that the real numbers have the same cardinality as the natural numbers? Does it mean that the difference between the real numbers and the natural numbers that explains the greater cardinality of the reals cannot in principle be described or proved? Does it mean that no set is "absolutely" uncountable but only "relatively" to a given set of axioms and a given interpretation?
[Glossary of First-Order Logic]
Try this search on OneLook / Google